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post #9 of (permalink) Old 17th April 2007 Thread Starter
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Inappropriate footwear? That would probably explain it. No doubt it's down to the interpretation of a fuzzy, vague, British law being used and abused out of context (as usual.)

The way I see it, if it's 'inappropriate footwear' then surely there must be footwear involved. If there isn't any, then that's like citing inappropriate behaviour when someone hadn't exhibited any behavour at all.

That's not to say that the law wouldn't see it differently, and as a motorist, I'm used to being guilty until proven innocent. Still, given the choice between painful shoes and driving barefoot, I'll probably still drive barefoot.
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